The Greek word with two meanings?

In the first passage in the New Testament we have it used to mean unrighteousness 2 Corinthians 6:14. Strongs G458.

While in 1 John 3:4 it is translated as Transgression Strongs G458.

So why is this so, since in the Hebrew two different words are used in relation to the New Testament, being Chamas (Khamas) Strongs H2555 and Aber (Aver) H5674,

So we have to ask did the English translators of both the Wycliffe and the Tyndale get it so wrong or does it really matter?